TO USE TR1

After divorce my ex wife transfers her 50% share to me

does this constitute whole transfer  and I use TR1

Also as I own 50% I'm I classed also as a transferor  and transferee?

Colin - it does as you can only ever transfer the whole legal ownership. Whilst there's a 'share' involved essentially the two of you have to transfer the whole to just the one of you.
So the two of you are the Transferors and you are the transferee alone as the new legal owner.

Thanks very much.

If I can add the intended transfer is part of a divorce  and consent order but the sum  agreed for transfer is less than the market value of her 50% ownership 
I was told I still need put the value as 50% of the markey value but worried I will not be stating the truth?


 

Colin - you should complete the consideration to refer to the actual amount being paid and not for example 50% of the current market value
See the online guidance re how to complete panel 8 of form TR1 

thanks again