Hello.
I have a question regarding fees, in this case scale 2 .
According to your guide and scale 2 fees there is an example as follows:
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“John Smith transfers a property by gift to himself and Sharon Jones in equal shares. It is worth £200,000. The fee is assessed on half the value of the property (£100,000), and payable under Scale 2.”
However, according to your YouTube video, which also uses an example of one person transferring to 2 people (marriage) completing the AP1 box 4 “Application , priority and fees” the narrator states that where no money (consideration) is paid, the FULL market value needs to be entered under “Price paid/value “ in the third column. In the fourth column the applicable fee needs to be entered. THIS BRINGS ME TO MY QUESTION.
Is it right that the full market value in column 3 is inserted but the fee scale applicable to half of the value is entered into column 4 and if so is it necessary to clarify this somewhere ? For example, the property value is £500,000 and the share is £250,000, the fee scale used for £250,000 is £100, albeit the fee is the same for £500,000?
Thank you.
Regards
Peter