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Posted Thu, 11 Dec 2025 18:57:32 GMT by C S
Our deceased parent's house is to be transferred to one of the beneficiaries. (We've worked with a probate solicitor, all inheritance tax has been paid, probate granted, proper valuations obtained, and confirmed no capital gains tax.)<br> The value of the property is greater than the beneficiary's inheritance. Therefore they are paying some cash too, which is approximately 40% of the total value of the property.<br> <br> Please can you advise what figure is correct in box 4 of the AP1 form.<br> a) the amount of cash paid by the beneficiary,<br> or<br> b) the total value of the property,<br> or<br> c) some other answer?<br> Would I need to add any other detail so that the form is accurate or can be understood and processed properly?<br> <br> Many thanks for your help!
Posted Fri, 12 Dec 2025 08:28:48 GMT by Nimish Patel
CS - Our fees would be based on the total value of the property.&#160;

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