Hi,
I just wanted to confirm if I'm sending the correct forms.
There is a small piece of land (which has it's own title) that was previously jointly purchased by myself and my mum, ownership was then later transferred to just my mum, and now I am purchasing it back from her to register in solely in my name. There is no mortgage or anyone else involved.
I understand to do that we need to send a TR1 form for the transfer of title, and an AP1 form, plus ID.
On the title register, under the heading Title absolute, it has an entry dated from when we originally jointly purchased it stating:
"RESTRICTION: No disposition by a sole proprietor of the registered estate (except a trust corporation) under which capital money arises is to be registered unless authorised by an order of the court."
I believe this means we can't complete the transfer as she is currently the sole registered owner. Would the correct form to resolve this be RX3 or RX4?
In case it's relevant, there is a second entry under that stating:
[date it transferred to just my mum] A Transfer of the land in this title dated [date of joint purchase] made between (1) xxx (Transferor) and (2) [my mum] and [me] (Transferees) contains purchaser's personal covenant(s) details of which are set out in the schedule of personal covenants hereto.
So you can infer that I was one of the original joint transferees would that be enough to show that I am the intended beneficiary of the restriction and can therefore use RX4 to consent for it to be removed?
Thank you