Thank you for the response above. Just to query, as we have another similar matter:
Would you require that the developer be a party to the variation or would submitting evidence that the company has been Dissolved be sufficient? We appreciate that where we are looking to vary a rentcharge the rentcharge owner must be a party - what's not clear is if you would consider the original developer a rentcharge owner where the circumstances giving rise to their ability to collect the rentcharge have not yet materialised.
Thank you